Monday 29 February 2016

Finance 002-Investments-Finals

Aggregate measures of stock prices include dividend income.
 True
 False 
The S&P 500 uses
A.
a simple average
B.
a compound average
C.
a geometric average
D.
a value-weighted average
Holding period returns for greater than a year do not give an accurate measure of the true rate of return.
 True
 False 
The Standard & Poor's 500 stock index illustrates
A.
an exponential index
B.
a simple average
C.
a geometric index
D.
a value-weighted index
The S&P 500 stock index is more sensitive to changes in the prices of small stocks than the stocks of large companies.
 True
 False 
If a stock increased from $25 to $50 in five years, the annual rate of return was 20 percent.
 True
 False 
To determine the realized return on an investmen, the investor needs to know
1. income received
2. the cost of an investment
3. the sale price of the investment
A.
2 and 3
B.
all of the above
C.
1 and 3
D.
1 and 2
The Russell 3000 is a broad-based measure of bond prices.
 True
 False 
Which of the following is the least broad-based measure of stock prices?
A.
Nasdaq market index
B.
Russell 3000
C.
Dow Jones industrial average
D.
S&P 500 stock index
Historical studies of rates of return on large stocks suggest
A.
the average return is about 6.4 percent annually
B.
equity investors rarely sustain losses
C.
over a period of years, the rate is approximately 10 percent
D.
dividends account for over half the return
An investor may expect a bond to be called if its current yield exceeds the yield to maturity.
 True
 False 
The market price of preferred stock moves directly with changes in interest rates.
 True
 False 
If interest rates in general were to fall,
1. the prices of existing bonds would rise
2. the prices of existing bonds would fall
3. yields to maturity would rise
4. yields to maturity would fall
A.
1 and 4
B.
2 and 4
C.
1 and 3
D.
2 and 3
If interest rates rise, the price of preferred stock
A.
rises
B.
falls
C.
rises or falls
D.
is not affected
The spread (the basis points) between the yields on AAA-rated bonds and B-rated bonds tends to rise when yields increase.
 True
 False 


                If a bond is selling for a premium,
A.
the current yield has risen
B.
the bond cannot be called
C.
the yield to maturity exceeds the current yield
D.
the current yield exceeds the yield to maturity
The yield to call
A.
is important if interest rates have risen
B.
equals the current yield
C.
equals the yield to maturity
D.
is important if interest rates have fallen
The prices of zero coupon bonds fluctuate less than bonds with large coupons.
 True
 False 
A conservative investor will prefer a bond with a smaller duration even though it may have a longer term to maturity.
 True
 False 
If preferred stock is subject to mandatory retirement, its price is more volatile than preferred stock without the retirement feature.
 True
 False 

Municipal bonds are considered to be safe investments because they may be readily sold with little chance of loss.
 True
 False 
A revenue bond is supported by the taxation authority of the issuing government.
 True
 False 
General obligation bonds
A.
are secured by property
B.
illustrative of a revenue bond
C.
not illustrative of a tax-exempt bond
D.
are supported by taxing authority
If interest rates are expected to rise, a prudent strategy would be to sell treasury bills and buy treasury bonds.
 True
 False 
Ginnie Mae bonds are secured by private mortgages.
 True
 False
The interest on series EE bonds
A.
is distributed semi-annually
B.
is taxed even though it is not received until the bond is redeemed
C.
is exempt from federal income taxation
D.
is exempt from state income taxation
Poor quality municipal bonds pay more interest than poor quality corporate debt.
 True
 False 
The owner of a Ginnie Mae bond receives monthly both interest and principal repayments.
 True
 False 
Build American bonds are not exempt from federal income taxation.
 True
 False 
Municipal bonds are often examples of serial bonds.
 True
 False 

When an investor purchases a bond, that individual receives accrued interest from the seller.
 True
 False 
Bonds may be retired by
1. being called
2. a sinking fund
3. being repurchased
A.
1 and 2
B.
1 and 3
C.
2 and 3
D.
all of the above
If a firm repurchases bonds at a discount, the difference between the principal amount and the purchase price produces taxable income.
 True
 False 
Income taxation on the interest earned from an investment in a zero coupon bond occurs when the bond matures.
 True
 False
Debentures are secured by equipment.
 True
 False 
In general, income bonds are less risky than
A.
preferred stock
B.
secured debt
C.
short-term debt obligations
D.
mortgage bonds
Serial bonds
A.
are issued and retired in a series
B.
are primarily issued by the federal government
C.
have a sinking fund
D.
are a type of income bond
Bonds pay a flow of income called “interest.”
 True
 False 
A diversified portfolio of high-yield securities may be achieved with ten or fewer bonds.
 True
 False 
The current yield and the yield to maturity are equal if a bond sells for its par value.
 True
 False 
The economic goals of the Federal Reserve include
1. prosperity
2. full employment
3. stable prices
A.
1 and 3
B.
all of the above
C.
2 and 3
D.
1 and 2
The anticipation of inflation suggests that the investor should
A.
avoid real estate investments
B.
sell stocks of gold companies
C.
buy bonds
D.
anticipate higher interest rates
The money supply, defined as M1, includes currency, coins, and checking accounts.
 True
 False 
An increase in stock prices is a lagging indicator of economic activity.
 True
 False 
If the Federal Reserve sells securities, that reduces commercial banks' capacity to lend.
 True
 False 
M-2 is a narrower definition of the money supply and excludes savings accounts in commercial banks.
 True
 False 
The federal funds rate is the rate banks charge each other when they borrow reserves.
 True
 False 
A tight monetary policy should generate a higher required return for common stock.
 True
 False 
An easy monetary policy increases the cost of credit.
 True
 False 
A recession is a period of rising employment.
 True
 False 
Studies of investment returns suggest that investors can expect to earn at least 15 percent annually.
 True
 False 
Averaging down will prove to be profitable only if the price of the stock subsequently rises.
 True
 False 
Dollar cost averaging is
A.
periodically investing a specified dollar amount in a stock
B.
periodically buying a round lot of stock
C.
a means to increase the average cost basis
D.
a means to insure a positive return
The rate of return on a stock considers the price change but not dividend income.
 True
 False 
Historical studies of investment returns suggest that the stocks of small companies generate higher returns than the stocks of larger companies.
 True
 False 
Movements in individual stock prices tend to be
A.
positively correlated
B.
positively correlated with inflation
C.
positively correlated with changes in interest rates
D.
negatively correlated
Preferred stock and long-term bonds are similar because
A.
they both have voting power
B.
interest and dividend payments are legal obligations
C.
interest and dividend payments are fixed
D.
interest and dividend payments are tax-deductible expenses
A call penalty is a payment made to the firm to encourage early retirement of the bond.
 True
 False 
While bond prices fluctuate,
A.
coupons are constant
B.
yields are constant
C.
short-term bond prices fluctuate more
D.
the spread between yields is constant
The value of a bond depends on the amount of principal, when it matures, and the interest it pays.
 True
 False 
Preferred stock generally pays
A.
a variable dividend
B.
a fixed dividend
C.
a stock dividend
D.
no dividend
Bonds that are callable often have a call penalty.
 True
 False 
If an investor were to anticipate that interest rates were going to fall, that individual should
A.
sell bonds
B.
acquire money market securities
C.
buy bonds
D.
take no action
The prices of twenty-year bonds tend to fluctuate less than bonds with five years to maturity.
 True
 False 
If investors expect interest rates to rise, they should sell preferred stock and buy bonds.
 True
 False 
Agencies of the federal government are not allowed to issue bonds.
 True
 False 
Which of the following is not traded in the secondary markets?
A.
U.S. Treasury bonds
B.
municipal bonds
C.
series EE bonds
D.
U.S. Treasury bills
Municipal bonds are not registered with the SEC.
 True
 False 
The federal government cannot issue debt that matures in less than five years.
 True
 False 
Interest earned on series EE bonds is exempt from federal income taxation.
 True
 False
Treasury bonds may be bought and sold in the secondary markets like corporate bonds.
 True
 False 
Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) are sold in classes ("tranches") that increase the certainty of the timing of payments.
 True
 False
Yields on municipal bonds exceed yields on corporate  bonds with the same term to maturity and credit rating.
 True
 False 
If interest rates decline, the expected life of a Ginnie Mae bond is reduced.
 True
 False 
One advantage to the issuing firm of a split coupon bond is that cash is initially conserved.
 True
 False
A high yield bond
A.
pays no interest
B.
pays interest only at maturity
C.
is a high-risk debt instrument
D.
is a bond in default
A negatively sloped yield curve occurs when short-term rates exceed long-term rates.
 True
 False 
A firm may not repurchase bonds at a discount.
 True
 False 
A call penalty (i.e., call premium) protects the
A.
issuer from rising interest rates
B.
investor against premature retirement of the bond
C.
issuer from the bondholder requesting payment
D.
investor from default
Equipment trust certificates are
A.
secured debt obligations
B.
a type of debenture
C.
bonds with low credit ratings
D.
riskier than convertible bonds
Under current law, American corporations may not issue bearer bonds with coupons attached.
 True
 False 
A bond's seller pays accrued interest to the buyer.
 True
 False 
Large increases in the money supply may be associated with
A.
increased employment
B.
decreased inflation
C.
increased unemployment
D.
increased inflation
When the Federal Reserve seeks to contract the money supply, it may
A.
buy securities and raise the targeted federal funds rate
B.
sell securities and lower the targeted federal funds rate
C.
buy securities and lower the targeted federal funds rate
D.
sell securities and raise the targeted federal funds rate

Monetary policy affects securities prices by
1. affecting investors' required return
2. increasing the federal deficit
3. affecting firms' capacity to generate earnings
A.
1 and 3
B.
all of the above
C.
1 and 2
D.
2 and 3
Changes in the price of gold are often related to the anticipation of inflation.
 True
 False 
The price of gold tends to rise during inflationary periods.
 True
 False 
If the country's exports increase, GDP declines.
 True
 False 
The fiscal policy of the federal government excludes
A.
taxation
B.
the money supply
C.
debt management
D.
expenditures
Indices of Nasdaq stocks tend to be less volatile than the S&P 500 index.
 True
 False 
Dollar-cost averaging is achieved by periodic, equal dollar investments.
 True
 False 
The Wilshire stock index is more broad based than the S&P 500 stock index.
 True
 False
Stock indices do not consider taxes on capital gains.
 True
 False 
A strategy of averaging down will be profitable if
A.
the firm retains earnings
B.
the firm pays more dividends
C.
the price of the stock continues to fall
D.
the price of the stock subsequently rises
Movements in stock prices are often illustrated using relative (percentage) price changes instead of absolute price changes.
 True
 False 
Bond averages that are expressed in percentages are not comparable to the S&P 500.
 True
 False 
An investment's internal rate of return equates
A.
initial cash outflow and the sale price
B.
cash outflows and subsequent cash inflows
C.
dividend payments and the investment's cost
D.
dividend payments and capital gains
Over time, holding period returns tend to overstate the true annualized rate of return.
 True
 False 
A few bonds called "perpetuals" never mature.
 True
 False 
Preferred stock pays a fixed amount of interest.
 True
 False 
The concept of duration stresses when a bond will make its payments to bondholders.
 True
 False 
If interest rates have fallen, a firm may prefer to repurchase the bonds on the market instead of calling and redeeming them.
 True
 False 
Fluctuations in yields is one means by which the economy allocates scarce credit.
 True
 False 
The value of a bond depends on
1. the coupon rate
2. the terms of the indenture
3. the maturity date
a. 1 and 2
A.
2 and 3
B.
all of the above
C.
1 and 3
The smaller the duration, the more volatile the bond's price.
 True
 False 
Sources of risk to investors in municipal bonds include
1. fluctuations in interest rates
2. reinvestment rate risk
3. default risk
A.
2 and 3
B.
1 and 2
C.
all of the above
D.
1 and 3
Municipal bonds are more marketable than corporate and federal government bonds.
 True
 False 
Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)
A.
have certain repayment schedules
B.
are free of interest rate risk
C.
are not exempt from federal income taxation
D.
increase in value when interest rates rise
Ginnie Maes are
A.
mortgage backed securities issued by the Government National Mortgage Association
B.
long-term mortgage securities sold by banks
C.
long-term bonds issued by the federal government
D.
short-term, mortgage-backed securities

There is no secondary market for EE bonds.
 True
 False 
If interest rates fall, the value of a Ginnie Mae bond should increase.
 True
 False 
Since bonds are legal obligations, their prices are determined when issued and do not change.
 True
 False
A zero coupon only pays interest when it is sold.
 True
 False
A "fallen angel" was once a quality bond whose issuing firm is currently having financial problems.
 True
 False
Zero coupon bonds
A.
are sold for a premium
B.
are sold at a discount
C.
cannot be called
D.
accrue interest at maturity
In a typical bond classification
A.
"C" stands for a convertible bond
B.
"B" stands for a "bearer" bond
C.
"A" are investment grade bonds
D.
"D" represents a debenture
A negatively sloped yield curve suggests
1. short-term rates exceed long-term rates
2. long-term rates exceed short-term rates
3. the Federal Reserve is following a tight  monetary policy
4. the Federal Reserve is following an easy  monetary policy
A.
1 and 4
B.
2 and 4
C.
1 and 3
D.
2 and 3
One source of risk associated with investments in bonds is the possibility of default.
 True
 False 
Virtually all bonds have each of the following except
A.
interest payments
B.
voting rights
C.
an indenture
D.
maturity date
In most cases, interest accrues daily on long-term bonds but distributed only twice a year.
 True
 False 
A bond that is traded "flat" has a fixed coupon.
 True
 False 
A federal government deficit may be financed by
1. the general public buying government bonds
2. commercial banks buying treasury bills
3. the Federal Reserve selling securities
A.
all of the above
B.
2 and 3
C.
1 and 2
D.
1 and 3
Open market operations is the buying and selling of securities by the Federal Reserve.
 True
 False 
The Federal Reserve is the central bank of the United States.
 True
 False 




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